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Post by Antti Jokinen on May 12, 2018 18:27:49 GMT
I think it's been an epic mistake to believe in the existence of fiat money. This belief, which forms the rationale for Bitcoin and other crypto-assets, is falling to pieces (read, for instance, this from JP; comments, too). Bitcoin, which was supposed to be money, isn't money, but serves an educational purpose? It has accelerated the demise of the belief in the existence of fiat money. Am I too harsh if I say that the ones who see fiat money, many economists included, don't understand how the monetary system actually works? If they don't understand it, then they will only stop talking about fiat money when they learn how the system works. As silly as it sounds, I think this famous BoE Quarterly Bulletin from 2014 did a lot to increase monetary understanding among even academic economists. Perhaps here's another chance to increase that understanding? I have much more to say, but I leave it here for now, in hope JP, Oliver and others find time to chime in. (JP, I will make a comeback in the CBDC thread at one point, too. We're not finished yet! I liked the blog post you wrote on the subject. Thank you, too, for the food for thought!)
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Post by JP (admin) on May 15, 2018 14:21:24 GMT
Antti, I agree with you on fiat money. "Am I too harsh if I say that the ones who see fiat money, many economists included, don't understand how the monetary system actually works?" Many people who have joined the bitcoin movement only have a bare-bones understanding of the monetary system, as I'm sure you've noticed. For them, the phrase "fiat money" has become a slur, or an epithet, that they use against critics. I suppose it is normal for a political group to have located an enemy. A bad guys provides members with an opposite to strive against, and getting to know the enemy might weaken its usefulness as a motivator. As for economists, that's trickier. Here's a conversation I had with Stephen Williamson on the topic: newmonetarism.blogspot.ca/2018/01/is-bitcoin-waste-of-resources.html?showComment=1516715485257#c8590615334274405001Dror Goldberg has some good ideas about why economists like the idea of fiat money: "Interestingly, monetary economists do not claim that their “fiat money” concept is fictional. On the contrary, they identify it with the modern money we use in reality. Legal scholars and laypersons call the money we actually use by the same name since “fiat” refers to its status as legal tender. Monetary economists usually ignore this status. As Wallace and Zhu (2004) explain, using the “fiat money” concept (even when money was gold or silver) “was convenient because it produced a simple and strong prediction: allocations are independent of the amount of money.” Convenience aside, the literature has used various ways to justify the use of “fiat money” in models and its identification as the money we actually use in reality...." More here: www.appropriate-economics.org/materials/famous_myths_of_fiat_money.pdf
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Post by oliver on May 17, 2018 6:08:23 GMT
Just a quick one before I go to work. Antti says: <i>Bitcoin, which was supposed to be money, isn't money, but serves an educational purpose?</i> I doubt Bitcoin was conceived with its educational purpose in mind :-). And how about blockchain? I came across this article which I think I agree with intuitively.
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Post by oliver on May 18, 2018 12:22:15 GMT
Getting back to my comment and also hopefully back on topic.
Antti writes:
I think it's been an epic mistake to believe in the existence of fiat money. This belief, which forms the rationale for Bitcoin and other crypto-assets, is falling to pieces
Taking JP's slippery fiat slope, I think crypto-assets are trying hard to NOT be fiat. They are an attempt to create electronic assets that emulate 1) as best as possible. Is that what you meant? Of course creating the ultimate 'anti-fiat' is a futile endeavour if there is no such thing AS fiat in the first place.
So one question is, if we assume that there is no fiat, then what is it exactly that the crypto types are against? And where do economists come in?
The most obvious dichotomy with which to exemplify the ideological battle is, in my opinion, 'centralised vs. decentralised'.
Crypto currency is an attempt to build a decentralised currency to counter what they believe to be the centralised, government monopoly system we have. Government / centralised / monopolist = bad, no government / decentralised / competitive = good. If there is a problem, it must be one of government (acceptable to a point, I suppose) and so any solution must lie in having less government (grave philosophical error, imo!). Commercial banks have of course become part of the cabal, unlike back in the good old days of free banking.
What do monetary economists think? What do economists think? And are either of them complicit in constructing a false enemy? Or is the enemy in fact real?
I'm not a monetary economist, but I think that at least in its most basic form, conventional monetary theory does come with a narrative that supports the idea that modern, non-commodity money is by construction a monopolistic system run by the central bank / government. And the idea of 'fiat', i.e. that there is a 'thing', a basic building block, that is intrinsicaly worthless, but is given worth or credence by something the central bank or government does, e.g. legal tender laws or limiting its supply (quantity theory), is part of that narrative. After reading the paper 'Famous Myths of “Fiat Money” you linked to above, I don't think it matters whether one believes that 'fiat' ever existed or not. It is its use as a building block in monetary theory that begs the question of how a non-barter monetary system works. Grossly simplified, barter is a commodity, thus it has intrinsic worth. A commodity standard has worth, because it is 'backed' by a commodity. Fiat, on the other hand, is intrinsically worthless. So there must be something a central authority does which gives it its worth, if there is no visible backing to fall back on. That something, as I said, might be a legal tender law, a quantity rule, an interest rate rule etc. or a combination of those. The idea of fiat is the starting point of a centralised, hierarchical theory of modern money and thus the the head of the 'fiat dragon' that the crypto folks aim to slay.
And what about non-monetary economists? Again, I'm not one of them, so all I can do is take an educated guess. And that would be that the construct of 'perfect competition' is actually the formalised version of the same anti-static ideology that the crypto folks hold. Of course, it is sold as a self-evident truth, an ontological fact, not a theoretical simplification. And, although monopolies, monopsonies, and other, complementary catagories are also named and studied in their own right, it is still the 'state of nature' of perfect competition that forms the teleological trajectory of any classically informed economic theory. Free and equal forces keep checks an balances on each other in a divine dance the epitome of which is the nirvanic state of equilibrium.
So, to summarise, modern, non-commodity (backed) money, aka fiat, lacks intrinsic value which it would need to exist in a free and competitive environment as both crypto-ideology and economoc theory suggest would be best and fairest for all. The radical solution, then, is to return (gold bugs), or simulate (crypto folks) a pre-fiat state of the world in which that which one believes gives money its value is a natural feature of the thing that acts as monetary medium, as opposed to the result of monopolistic meddling.
And what do I believe? I think economic theory has done itself a disservice by elevating its own categories to ontological levels that then pervade all discussions and create unnecessary ideological divides. On the above mentioned points, and getting back to our endless discussions on this board, I think it is wrong to think of money as having various degrees of commodity and 'fiat' components. There is a clear divide between barter and that which isn't barter. And all which isn't barter is an IOU (or a TOM, if you like), the value of which is derived from that which is owed and the level of trust placed in the people an institutions involved. So, in its most basic form, there is no monopolistic head to be slain by the crypto dragon slayers. Modern money is already decentralised in that its value is the result of a myriad of individual decisions. There is, however, a centralised component that has has become as much part of modern money as its basic, IOU core and which is exemplified by the central bank. But rather than characterising that component in quantiative terms, whether as a quantity of money or interest rate, my focus would be more on the qualitative aspects of monetary policy and their, possibly conflicting, effects on the value of money and the stability of the financial system.
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Post by oliver on May 18, 2018 13:00:25 GMT
OK, I'll have to rephrase that last part a bit. Of course, money cannot have a fiat component if there is no such thing as fiat. On the other hand, I suppose I can imagine a transaction taking place in which part of the debt is settled with the barter value of a money object (say a gold coin), whereas the rest remains an unsettled TOM until I exchange the coin for some other good or service. Say you pay me for a haircut worth $100 with a piece of gold, the molten market value of which is $20. We have bartered $20 worth of gold and haircuts and I'm left with a remaining TOM value of $80. What influences the value of those two components? A shock in gold mining would affect the value of the gold component vs. the TOM value component. To affect the TOM value component, however, there would have to be an identifiable shock in the supply and demand of all things I can buy with that coin, including haircuts and gold. And one can also commission a central authority with managing the value of TOMs in such a way that both components fluctuate in unison. So if the value of gold measured in terms of goods rises, then value of the TOM measured in goods must rise accordingly (did I get that right?). Not easy to do, I guess, but depending on the circumstances, it may be a legitimate way to establish a viable TOM system from scratch.
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Post by oliver on May 20, 2018 7:32:16 GMT
Seems like I managed to clear out the forum with my rant. It was not my intention to suck anyone into a tedious, political discussion, nor do I expect anyone to agree with me. It's just that the whole crypto buzz has a distinctively ideological feel to it. So do ignore my comment but don't stop commenting because of it!
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Post by Antti Jokinen on May 21, 2018 14:19:19 GMT
Don't worry, Oliver! I've been just busy.
Regarding your penultimate comment: I don't think there are different components in your example. A $100 IOU/TOM ("they owe me") written on a piece of gold worth $20 as bullion has a $100 credit component. The $20 is just collateral, Plan B. Better than an IOU written on a piece of paper, as its holder takes only $80 credit risk, compared to $100.
Right?
Think of a government using $100 tax tokens/credits (I refer back to our thread about colonial currency) made of gold, worth $20 apiece as bullion. Yes, the material is more valuable than bronze or paper, but it is still a credit transaction, not quid pro quo, not even $100 pro $20. If the government buys goods worth $1,000, using ten of these tokens, it should record $1,000 increase in public debt. But at the same time, it (really, the public) still owns gold worth $200 (possibly recorded as public assets), even if it is in circulation. It's one or the other, an IOU or bullion. As long as the piece of gold has the government's stamp on it, it is a public IOU/TOM, and is due to return to government coffers.
Chips are the casino's property, aren't they? A special kind of property, of course, because if a gambler never returns the chips to the casino, the casino is happy. But that's because the chips contain the casino's IOUs, written on them.
Do you agree?
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Post by Antti Jokinen on May 21, 2018 17:04:00 GMT
JP, interesting discussion you had with Williamson! I think he blurred it in the end; you had a very strong argument against money being fiat money / a bubble (which I take to mean the same in this context; fiat money = a bubble), and I didn't see him refuting it.
As we also saw in your discussion, I think, 0 % interest is no argument for a bubble. No matter interest rate, this boils down to money being a part of a credit-debt relationship, or not. If not, then it's a bubble.
Is central bank money a part of a credit-debt relationship? To me it is obvious that it is. We only need to imagine a situation where all debt in the economy is repaid, and for a minute or two there's no debt (new debts will emerge through trade shortly, but for a moment we're in a weird situation with no debt). Central bank money would have disappeared, with the debt, which is IMO clear evidence of it not being a bubble. (Depending on how we define debt, there could be some central bank money in existence, fully backed by gold and other tangible assets on the CB balance sheet.)
Money being a bubble means it would still exist when all debt has been momentarily repaid.
How does this sound?
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Post by oliver on May 23, 2018 17:13:17 GMT
Don't worry, Oliver! I've been just busy. Regarding your penultimate comment: I don't think there are different components in your example. A $100 IOU/TOM ("they owe me") written on a piece of gold worth $20 as bullion has a $100 credit component. The $20 is just collateral, Plan B. Better than an IOU written on a piece of paper, as its holder takes only $80 credit risk, compared to $100. Right? Think of a government using $100 tax tokens/credits (I refer back to our thread about colonial currency) made of gold, worth $20 apiece as bullion. Yes, the material is more valuable than bronze or paper, but it is still a credit transaction, not quid pro quo, not even $100 pro $20. If the government buys goods worth $1,000, using ten of these tokens, it should record $1,000 increase in public debt. But at the same time, it (really, the public) still owns gold worth $200 (possibly recorded as public assets), even if it is in circulation. It's one or the other, an IOU or bullion. As long as the piece of gold has the government's stamp on it, it is a public IOU/TOM, and is due to return to government coffers. Chips are the casino's property, aren't they? A special kind of property, of course, because if a gambler never returns the chips to the casino, the casino is happy. But that's because the chips contain the casino's IOUs, written on them. Do you agree? Thanks for breaking it down to the technicalities, Antti. I think I at least follow. I was not aware that the gold, or casino chits in the examples are actually still considered property of the issuer. And I'm a bit surprised by your comment because I always thought you were 'Mr. net'. Net 'em all... But anyway, if so then all the better. I have a feeling JP has a different definition of what constitutes a bubble asset and what doesn't. But I'll let him answer for himself.
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Post by Antti Jokinen on May 23, 2018 20:24:51 GMT
I think I at least follow. I was not aware that the gold, or casino chits in the examples are actually still considered property of the issuer. And I'm a bit surprised by your comment because I always thought you were 'Mr. net'. Net 'em all... But anyway, if so then all the better. Regarding casino chips, here's straight from the horse's mouth (Las Vegas Sun): It's funny that he contrasts legal tender and property of the issuer. But he's not an authority on that matter, so I hope you can ignore it. Regarding gold, I don't now have evidence at hand, and I'm not even sure how gold has actually been treated. (Anyone?) But let's think about it. The government has in public coffers gold coins worth in total $200 as bullion, with $1,000 face value (if used as public IOUs). That's $200 worth of public assets, right? It then proceeds to purchase horses for $1,000, giving all gold coins to our old friend, the horse trader (JP must love this...). Would the government BOTH write off $200 worth of public assets AND add a $1,000 public debt? That would make no sense. Yet, public debt has increased by $1,000, so the only reasonable option is to continue to value the gold bullion as a public asset, even though the coins are in circulation (note: not sold or traded away, but in circulation). So, I'm for netting on the issuer's side. Net debt is $800 (gross debt minus assets), not $1,000. On the creditor's side, the situation is as follows. First, we have just concluded that the gold is still a public asset, so it cannot be also the horse trader's (creditor's) asset. The horse trader holds credits worth $1,000. Those are his assets. Second, if you think about it, would you treat a $100 dollar bill differently if you heard that the paper itself is worth $20, not a fraction of it as you previously thought? Well, perhaps you would be nicer towards it, but I guess you would pass it on just like before. Am I right? I'm going to get back to your earlier comments on Bitcoin later. There's a lot to discuss there, but I don't want to make this too messy yet
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Post by oliver on May 24, 2018 9:28:18 GMT
Edit: deleted nonsensical accounting.
You mentioned the word collateral. My understanding of collateral is that it is a change of ownership that is triggered by a certain, predetermined event. In the case of a mortgage, such an event could by my inability to keep up with mortgage payments. What event allows me to claim my collateral inherent in the gold coin? When is it legal for me to melt the gold and make jewellery out of it?
A quick search on the internet tells me that the legal status of money differs from one jurisdiction to another. Euro coins and notes are considered property of the holder. So one can do with them as one pleases. You can light your cigar with a 100 Euro note. This may be a new developmet, though and may well have been different even in Germany at times when money in circulation contained considerable amounts of precious metals.
The article I found, mentions that it is illegal to destroy money in the US and many other countries. Often, it is illegal to destroy anything that is marked with an official emblem such as an image of the monarch. In Thailand, for example, it is illegal to destroy anything that has the king's image on it because that is considered a lèse-majesté offense.
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Post by Antti Jokinen on May 24, 2018 19:03:03 GMT
Oliver, I'm afraid I took us off topic with my comments. The property question isn't that meaningful, because it's hard to think of an occasion when it would matter whether coins and notes are property of the government or the holder. I was thinking more on a theoretical level. As you know, I approach this from an accounting point of view. Cash to me is part of public infrastructure, in a way. Whether it's in the form of an accounting entry in a bank's ledger or a physical token/note, people are holding credits, not property. I guess you see my point?
The bullion in gold coins could be alternatively viewed as some kind of insurance against high inflation. Not a good insurance, though, if it only covers 20 % of the value of the credit.
I think we can move on.
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Post by Antti Jokinen on May 24, 2018 19:49:18 GMT
Oliver, you said earlier that Bitcoin is trying to be 'anti-fiat'. That's really interesting, because I think Bitcoin is fiat money (depending on the definition, of course). It has actually much more fiatness in it than moneyness, as it has failed as a medium of exchange. Here's Wikipedia on fiat money: The first three definitions highlight the role of the government/state, so you're right in that Bitcoin tries to be anti-fiat as here defined. As JP has been arguing in his blog posts, this kind of understanding of money is flawed, because the underlying idea here is that this money is a bubble. What I'm trying to show is that the whole conversation, including the language we use, is misguided or even nonsensical. If cash is just a token, serving an accounting purpose, then it doesn't make any sense to talk about intrinsic value in the first place. The ink on a ledger is worth next to nothing, but the entry itself can have great value as part of a larger system. We don't use time discussing how the ink on a ledger is in itself worth nothing, so why do we focus on the tokens having been made out of valueless material?
The fourth definition for fiat money above fits Bitcoin perfectly. Bitcoin is a intrinsically useless digital object. It's not a credit in a system where credits = debits, so it isn't part of accounting; it's at best a 'stray credit object', just like Somali shillings (step 9) in JP's post. Bitcoin is a bubble.
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Post by oliver on May 25, 2018 9:41:08 GMT
Oliver, you said earlier that Bitcoin is trying to be 'anti-fiat'. That's really interesting, because I think Bitcoin is fiat money (depending on the definition, of course). It has actually much more fiatness in it than moneyness, as it has failed as a medium of exchange. Here's Wikipedia on fiat money: The first three definitions highlight the role of the government/state, so you're right in that Bitcoin tries to be anti-fiat as here defined. As JP has been arguing in his blog posts, this kind of understanding of money is flawed, because the underlying idea here is that this money is a bubble. What I'm trying to show is that the whole conversation, including the language we use, is misguided or even nonsensical. If cash is just a token, serving an accounting purpose, then it doesn't make any sense to talk about intrinsic value in the first place. The ink on a ledger is worth next to nothing, but the entry itself can have great value as part of a larger system. We don't use time discussing how the ink on a ledger is in itself worth nothing, so why do we focus on the tokens having been made out of valueless material?
The fourth definition for fiat money above fits Bitcoin perfectly. Bitcoin is a intrinsically useless digital object. It's not a credit in a system where credits = debits, so it isn't part of accounting; it's at best a 'stray credit object', just like Somali shillings (step 9) in JP's post. Bitcoin is a bubble. I was arguing from ideology, not logic. Since we seem to agree that fiat cannot exist, it's futile to argue which type of 'stray credit object' (I like that) is more like something that does not exist than another. We can only ague what it's trying to be. And my argument, which is not incompatible with your's or JP's, I think, is that Bitcoin is an attempt to not be what those who invented or use it <i>think</i> that fiat is.
Getting back to logic, I'm not sure we should be equating fiat with bubble. Fiat literally means 'let there be'. The question is: let there be what? Let there be value? Let there be 'exchangeability'? Let there be unit of account? I think Bitcoin is an attempt at declaring 'exchangeability', thus hoping to create a natural demand. A tamper proof supply algorythm is then the magic potion that creates value which ultimately leads to BTC becoming, not only a MoE but also the UoA. So yes, there is some fiatness (fiat = wishful thinking?) at inception, but in an attempt to limit any possible fiatness thereafter, particularly wrt the quantity supplied and the possibility of government interference. In all, I don't think we disagree on anything substantial. Just a matter of different definitions of the thing that cannot be.
Staying with supply and demand for the moment, I think the credit = debit view can be broken down to the following: for each unit of credit granted / supplied, there is a corresponding unit debited somewhere. Since we have norms and laws and an economic system that demand that debts be repaid and credit be granted only to those who are deemed credit worthy, there is automatically a demand by those with net debits to acquire credits and a mix of capitalist (wrt banks) and democratic (wrt govermnment) accountability that makes sure that that demand is not covered primarily through new credit (bubble / ponzi finance). So there is a 'force' that keeps balance sheets from blowing up.
If one does not subscribe to a credit / accounting driven view of money, or starts somewhere else, then one needs a different story. Usually, it is the central bank that regulates the supply of credits or, alternatively, the central bank that sets an interest rate which then signals to banks how much credit they should grant. In both cases, particularly the first though, my question is: what is it that creates (initial) demand for those credits? Most stories I'm aware of just assume there is demand and then theorise about how it can be managed / contained. I find that unsatisfying. And I think Bitcoin is an example of where such thinking leads if someone actually acts upon it by 'inventing' a new currency. Also, I'm not quite clear about where JP stands on this issue.
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Post by Antti Jokinen on May 25, 2018 11:13:50 GMT
Oliver, I think we agree on more or less everything, as usual. You said: (Lecture warning!) First I want to say that the 'credit=debit view' is not just a view, but also an accurate description of what exists. We have credits and debits, it's accounting, and accounting is arithmetic. In arithmetic you don't take any five things/objects out of zero to arrive at minus five. In that sense any view that has money/credit objects in it is inferior to the credit=debit description of phenomena. It's no coincidence that negative numbers were thought of as debts when they first were 'invented'. Physics deals, or so I've understood, with positive quantities. One cannot have a negative number of pigs, for instance. Likewise, one cannot have a negative amount of (positive) money in one's possession. I know you're not a fan of Nick Rowe's 'red money' thought experiment (I wrote about it here), but it raises an important point (which I don't think Nick himself fully realizes). Namely, when we interpret banks' accounting, we could as well imagine that a negative amount of money (red money) is transferred from one account to another. We can do this because accounting is arithmetic. 5-5=0, but so does 5+(-5)=0. Everyone agrees, if you push them long enough, that there is in reality no transfer of anything between two accounts; one account just gets debited and another account credited. When pushed to its logical conclusion, this means that money doesn't really exist, which many might find quite hard to accept. (As you know, this is also compatible with the little-known school of monetary thought called Quantum Economics.) Now to my quote from you above. Again, I want to start by trying to establish a common language. 'Granting credit' is about the debit side (credit means 'trust' in this sense). If a bank grants you an overdraft account / credit line, it allows you to have a debit balance on your account. I assume 'supplying credit' means the same. If I sell something and get my account credited by the bank, we talk about the bank making a credit entry on my account. It doesn't supply credit. What happens on the buyer's side is that he either has a credit balance which covers the debit entry made on the account (no credit granting involved) or ends up with a(n increased) debit balance (credit granted, although one can argue that the bank granted it already earlier if it had pre-approved the overdraft). I'm sure you agree (?), but I just want to get this right. My language = my way of seeing the world. You talk about "a demand by those with net debits to acquire credits". Here I want to point out that there are no 'credits' in circulation, or floating around, which these people demand. There's no supply of credits, as if it was existing credit balances that these people are after. They are only after a credit entry on their account (as Quantum Economics says, money only exists in an instance when the entry is made). I guess you agree here, too, as you understand that the quantity theory is nonsensical. That 'demand' (which usually means that people are willing to sell something) has nothing to do with any supply. We could of course think that there's a supply of credit entries by people (the buyers) who are willing and able to debit their own accounts and thus get the seller's account credited. These people might have a credit balance on their accounts, or not. So I wouldn't talk about demand being covered by new credit, although I know what you mean. In my opinion we get too focused on the accounting and not the real phenomena, which is about people incurring debt by buying stuff 'on credit'. That's the decision the banks and the society take; it's not a decision about covering 'demand for credit entries' (that's between the buyer and the seller), but a decision about allowing people to incur debt. I'm afraid that in the current system, in which I include people and their opinions on reasonable levels of indebtness, there are not enough forces to keep balance sheets from blowing up. How do you see it?
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